Arsenal manager Mikel Arteta has reportedly made a decisive call on the future of one player at the Emirates Stadium.
And if the reports are to be believed, this could signal the end of midfielder Albert Sambi Lokonga at the Emirates as it is alleged the player has ‘no future’ with the club.
As Arsenal contends for the top spot in the Premier League, currently trailing leaders Liverpool by five points, the focus shifts to squad adjustments. Despite a quiet January transfer window for the Gunners, ongoing evaluations of the team could result in the departure of a first-team member.
Football Insider reports that Arsenal has opted to sell 24-year-old midfielder Albert Sambi Lokonga in the upcoming summer transfer window. Currently on loan at Luton Town, Lokonga has made eight appearances in the English top-flight, but his future at Arsenal appears uncertain.
The report suggests that Arsenal views Lokonga as surplus to requirements, with players such as Declan Rice, Kai Havertz, and Martin Odegaard considered ahead of him in the midfield pecking order.
Lokonga, who was signed from RSC Anderlecht for approximately £15 million in 2021, has struggled to secure a consistent starting role, leading to loan spells at Luton and Crystal Palace.
Despite having a contract with Arsenal until 2026, the club is reportedly willing to part ways with Lokonga, possibly recouping some of the initial investment made in the player three years ago.
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